Romans 3:9-10
What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, as it is written: “None is righteous, no, not one;
English Standard Version (ESV)
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Paul’s phrasing subtly reveals that the question, "Are we better off?" isn't just about boasting in privilege, but about the deeper, more profound question of whether Jews had some inherent advantage before God. The Greek word used implies a sense of having something to hold out as a defense, a claim that they could present to God to justify their standing.
Paul anticipates a Jewish objection, that their special privileges mean they must be better off than Gentiles. He directly challenges this, firmly stating that neither Jews nor Gentiles have any inherent advantage, because he has already established in previous chapters that both groups are equally enslaved to sin.
Imagine growing up with all the 'insider' knowledge of God's promises and laws. Wouldn't you feel a bit... special? The Apostle Paul addresses this very idea.
Paul anticipates a question from his Jewish audience: 'Are we Jews in a better position than the Gentiles?' This isn't just a casual inquiry; it's rooted in their unique heritage – the Law, the promises, and a special covenant with God. They might have felt their status inherently placed them above others in God's eyes. Paul's response is sharp and direct: 'No, not at all.' He's dismantling any notion that religious privilege or heritage grants automatic superiority or a free pass when it comes to sin and God's judgment. This challenges the idea that outward religious identity shields one from accountability.
What if the 'test' for all humanity, no matter their background, is the same? Paul delivers a verdict that applies to everyone, everywhere.
Paul's decisive answer to the Jewish question is the introduction of a sweeping indictment: 'For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin.' The key here is 'all.' Paul isn't just saying some people are sinful; he's stating a universal condition. Both the circumcised Jew, who possessed the Law, and the uncircumcised Gentile, who didn't, are equally bound by the power and guilt of sin. This isn't about who sins more, but that everyone is in the same fundamental state of rebellion and falling short of God's perfect standard. The concept of 'under sin' implies not just occasional wrongdoing, but being under its dominion and judgment.
Understand the original words
hamartian · Greek Noun
A state of being in opposition to God’s righteousness, whether viewed as an act of rebellion, a failure to meet His standard, or an inherent condition of fallen humanity that separates individuals from God.
dikaios · Greek Adjective
The state of moral rectitude or being 'right' with God, characterized by conformity to His holy standard and character, a standing that is unattainable by human effort alone.
Paul's assertion that neither Jews nor Gentiles are inherently better off directly addresses the deep-seated pride of the Jewish people, who, despite their unique covenantal history, were just as susceptible to sin as the Gentiles.
c. 586 BC
Babylonian Exile Begins
The destruction of Jerusalem and the First Temple by the Babylonians marked a devastating turning point for the Jewish people, leading to a widespread exile and a questioning of God's covenant faithfulness.
c. 539 BC
Return from Exile
Following the conquest of Babylon by the Persians, Cyrus the Great allowed the Jewish exiles to return to Jerusalem and rebuild the Temple, ushering in a period of restoration and renewed national identity.
c. 167-164 BC
Maccabean Revolt
A violent uprising against Seleucid Greek rule, sparked by forced Hellenization and desecration of the Temple, reinforced Jewish distinctiveness and a sense of divine mission.
c. 63 BC
Roman Rule in Judea
The Roman conquest of Judea brought a new imperial power, creating a complex political landscape and influencing Jewish religious and social expectations.
This passage echoes Romans 3:9 by stating that 'Scripture shut up everything under sin,' emphasizing the universal nature of humanity's fallen state before God.
1 Kings 8:46This Old Testament passage, likely in Paul's mind, acknowledges that 'no one is righteous on earth who keeps doing good and never sins,' reinforcing the idea that all, including God's chosen people, are subject to sin.
Ecclesiastes 7:20The verse 'Surely there is not a righteous man on earth who does good and never sins' directly supports Paul's assertion in Romans 3:9 that no one is inherently better, as it highlights universal human fallibility.
Romans 2:11-12This earlier part of Romans sets the stage by establishing that God shows no partiality, meaning neither Jews nor Gentiles have an inherent advantage before Him, a principle directly applied in Romans 3:9 to their shared condition under sin.
John 1:29While not a direct parallel, John the Baptist's declaration of Jesus as the 'Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world' implicitly acknowledges the pervasive reality of sin in all people, Jew and Gentile alike, which Romans 3:9 confirms.
meyerRomans 3:9: "What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;"
Romans 3:9 . When Paul, in Romans 3:6-8 , has defended the righteousness of God as decreeing wrath ( Romans 3:5 ) in the face of the proposition, correct in itself, that human sin turns out to God’s glory, he has thereby also deprived the sinner of all the defence , which he might derive from the misapplication of that proposition. This position of the…
ellicottRomans 3:9: "What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;"
(9-20) Once more the argument returns to the main track, and at last the Apostle asserts distinctly and categorically what he had already proved indirectly, that the Jew is every whit as bad as the Gentile. (9) Are we better than they?—“Can we claim a preference?” The form of the Greek verb is peculiar. It seems upon the whole best to take it as middle…
Paul’s phrasing subtly reveals that the question, "Are we better off?" isn't just about boasting in privilege, but about the deeper, more profound question of whether Jews had some inherent advantage before God. The Greek word used implies a sense of having something to hold out as a defense, a claim that they could present to God to justify their standing.
Paul anticipates a Jewish objection, that their special privileges mean they must be better off than Gentiles. He directly challenges this, firmly stating that neither Jews nor Gentiles have any inherent advantage, because he has already established in previous chapters that both groups are equally enslaved to sin.
Paul anticipates a Jewish objection, that their special privileges mean they must be better off than Gentiles. He directly challenges this, firmly stating that neither Jews nor Gentiles have any inherent advantage, because he has already established in previous chapters that both groups are equally enslaved to sin.
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c. AD 30-33
Crucifixion of Jesus
The pivotal event of Jesus's death and resurrection, central to the Christian faith, profoundly impacted Jewish and gentile perceptions of God's plan and salvation.
c. AD 50-60— this verse
Paul Writes Romans
The Apostle Paul penned this letter to the church in Rome during a period of intense theological reflection on the nature of salvation, the inclusion of Gentiles, and the ongoing relevance of God's covenant with Israel.
"What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, as it is written:
“None is righteous, no, not one;" — Paul’s phrasing subtly reveals that the question, "Are we better off?" isn't just about boasting in privilege, but about the deeper, more profound question of whether Jews had some inherent advantage…